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EKT Computer Science Question Paper

Written by Neha Dubey on Jun 22, 2014

Are you a computer science engineer and looking for EKT CS question paper? EKT question paper will consist of 50 questions. Check out EKT computer science question paper here.

EKT Computer Science Question Paper

IAF has introduced Engineering Knowledge Test from AFCAT 2/2014. Here we have provided sample question paper of computer science engineering for EKT test.   Also read

CSE Question Paper of Engineering Knowledge Test

Q1. If sin x+(sin x) 2=1, then   (a)          cos x+(cos x) 2 =1   (b)          cos x - (cos x) 2 =1   (c)          (cos x) 2 - (cos x) =1 (d)          (cos x) 2 + (cos x) 4 =1 Q2. Each edge of a cube is increased by 50%. The percentage increase in the surface area is (a) 50 (b) 125 (c) 150 (d) 300   Q3. The value of log 4 + log 5 - log 2 is (a) 1 (b) 7 (c) 10 (d) 9/2   Q4. The probability of drawing an ace or a spade or both from a deck of cards is (a) 4/52 (b) 13/52 (c) 1/52 (d) 16/52   Q5. Let 0 be the angle between two vectors a and b, then cos 0 is equal to (a) mod a + mod b (b) (a )+ mod b (c) mod (a+b) (d) ab/[ mod a x mod b]   Q6. Pressure is (a) scalar (b) vector (c) pseudo vector (d) Poynting vector   Q7. The force of attraction or repulsion between charges follows (a) square law (b) inverse square law (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of (a) and (b)   Q8. The force experienced by a conductor of length L carrying current I placed parallel to the magnetic field of flux density B is (a) BIL (b) Zero (c) HIL (d) IL/B   Q9. A wave undergoes reflection from a rigid boundary. One of its characteristic parameters that changes is (a) frequency (b) phase (c) velocity (d) wavelength   Q10. The half-life period of a radioactive element is 140 days . After 560 days one gram of the element will reduce to (a) 1/2 g (b) 1/4 g (c) 1/8 g (d) 1/16 g   Q11. Which projection shows the object from angles in which the scales along each axis of object are equal (a) auxiliary projection (b) isometric projection (c) orthographic projection (d) objective projection   Q12. In binary system the value (111)2 is equal to decimal (a) (7)10 (b) (3)10 (c) (5)10 (d) (8)10   Q13. when o/p of a flip-flop is used as clock I/p for next flip-flop the counter is called (a) ripple counter (b) asynchronous counter (c) both (a) and (b) (d) synchronous counter   Q14. The octal equivalent of (10011 )2 is (a) (32)8 (b) (52)8 (c) (23)8 (d) None of the above   Q15. Which of the following is used as storage locations both in the ALU and the control section of a computer? (a) accumulator (b) register (c) adder (d) decoder   Q16. The Central Processing Unit (CPU)Consists of: (a) Input, output and processing units (b) Control unit, primary storage, and secondary storage (c) Control unit, arithmetic-logic unit, and primary storage (d) Control Unit, processing, primary storage   Q17. If some device requires urgent service, normal execution of programs may sometimes be pre-empted using (a) an interrupt signal (b) a request to memory modules (c) DMA (d) all of the above   Q18. The fan-out capability of a digital building block can be defined as (a) the number of inputs that one output can transmit to (b) the amount of cooling required for fanning the hear out (c) the number of inputs that can transmit to one input (d) that the unit can scan   Q19. In computer terminology a compiler means (a) a person who computes source programs (b) the same thing as a programmer (c) key punch operator (d) a program which translates source program into object program.   Q20. The ascending order of a data Hierarchy is : (a) bit - bytes - field - record - file - database (b) bit - bytes - record - field - file - database (c) bytes - bit - field - record - file - database (d) bytes - bit - record - field - file - database   Q21. The processes at the most detailed level of the data flow diagrams are called (a) transform descriptions (b) functional primitives (c) data flows (d) interfaces   Q22. A station in a network forwards incoming packets by placing them on its shortest output queue. What routing algorithm is being used? (a) hot potato routing (b) flooding (c) static routing (d) delta routing   Q23. The action of parsing the source program into the proper syntactic classes is known as (a) syntax analysis (b) lexical analysis (c) interpretation analysis (d) general syntax analysis   Q24. An Interpreter is (a) a program that places programs into memory and prepares them for execution (b) a program that automates the translation of assembly language into machine language (c) program that accepts a program written in a high level. language and produces an object program (d) is a program that appears to execute a source program as if it were machine language   Q25. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a form suitable for execution (a) assembler (b) linking loader (c) cross compiler (d) load and go   EKT Previous Year Question Papers     Q26. A required characteristic of an online real-time system is : (a) more than one CPU (b) offline batch processing (c) no delay in processing (d) all of the above   Q27. Banker's algorithm for resource allocation deals with (a) deadlock prevention (b) deadlock avoidance (c) deadlock recovery (d) mutual exclusion   Q28. Situations where two or more processes are reading or writing some shared data and the final result depends on who runs precisely when, are called (a) race conditions (b) critical sections (c) mutual exclusions (d) message passing   Q29. Which of the following scheduling objectives should be applied to the following: the system should admit jobs to create a mix that will keep most devices busy (a) to be fair (b) to balance resource utilization (c) to obey priorities (d) to be predictable   Q30. The master list of an indexed file (a) is sorted in ascending order (b) contains only a list of keys and record numbers (c) has a number assigned to each record (d) both (b) and (c)   Q31. In SQL, which command(s) is(are) used to recompile a stored function? (a) SET FUNCTION (b) SET STORED FUNCTION (c) ALTER FUNCTION (d) all of the above   Q32. Updating a database means (a) revising the file structure (b) reorganizing the database (c) modifying or adding record occurrences (d) all of the above   Q33. The relational model uses some unfamiliar terminology. A tuple is equivalent to a (a) record (b) field (c) file (d) database   Q34. What type of software is most useful in financial planning and calculation? (a) graphics (b) communication (c) database (d) spreadsheet   Q35. A channel for communicating across a boundary between two or more sub-systems is known as (a) interface (b) actigram (c) walk through (d) data path   Q36. System prototyping helps the designer in (a) making the programmers understand how the system will function (b) communicating to the user, quickly, how the system, when developed, will look and get a feedback (c) giving a demo of the software, to the system manager to whom he reports (d) both (a) and (b)   Q37. The physical layer, in reference to the OSI model, defines (a) data link procedures that provide for the exchange of data via frames that can be sent and received (b) the interface between the X.25 network and packet mode device (c) the virtual circuit interface to packet-switched service (d) all of the above   Q38. Which of the following device copies electrical signals from one Ethernet to another? (a) bridge (b) repeater (c) hub (d) passive hub   Q39. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for transferring files from one machine to another? (a) RARP (b) ARP (c) TCP (d) FTP   Q40. What does the acronym ISDN stand for? (a) Indian Standard Digital Network (b) Integrated Services Digital Network (c) Intelligent Services Digital Network (d) Integrated Services Data Network   Q41. Four bits are used for packet sequence numbering in a sliding window protocol used in a computer network. What is the maximum window size? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 15 (d) 16   Q42. If you get both local and remote echoes, every character you type will appear on the screen (a) once (b) twice (c) three times (d) never   Q43. Voice signal frequency may lie anywhere between (a) 0 to 20 KHz (b) 0 to 1 MHz (c) 15 Hz to 15 KHz (d) none of these   Q44. PWM signal can be generated by (a) a monostable multivibrator (b) an astable multivibrator (c) integrating PPM signal (d) differentiating PPM signal   Q45. What part of the transformer is subjected to maximum heating (a) core (b) winding (c) oil (d) frame   Q46. The servo motor differs from ordinary motor in that it has (a) low inertia & high torque (b) high inertia & high torque (c) low inertia & low torque (d) high inertia & low torque   Q47. The speed of DC motor is (a) always constant (b) directly proportional to back emf (c) directly proportional to flux (d) inversely proportional to the product of back emf and flux   Q48. Negative feedback reduces in amplifiers (a) signal (b) amplification (c) distortion (d) none of the above   Q49. Whenever the two inputs are same the output is high for (a) EX-OR (b) EX-NOR (c) NOR (d) NAND   Q50. A hard disk is divided into tracks which are further subdivided into (a) clusters (b) sectors (c) vectors (d) heads    Also check out

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